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Latest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 pdf

[PDF] Free Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1QE2kYGjwbn-IwAfHXsfrHkAp3qhEoFYw

300-365 WIDEPLOY – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/wideploy.html

Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What is the default NMSP echo interval between a Mobility Services Engine and Wireless LAN Controller?
A. 30 Seconds
B. 15 Seconds
C. 10 Seconds
D. 60 Seconds
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/wireless/mse/3350/6.0/CAS/configuration/guide/msecg_ch4_CAS.html

 

QUESTION 2
A customer has “quiet” wireless clients that use static IP addresses. Which two WLAN configurations are required for
these wireless clients to connect properly? (Choose two.)
A. Disable DHCP address assignment required.
B. Enable passive client.
C. Disable allow AAA override.
D. Enable static IP tunneling.
E. Disable DHCP server override.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is integrating a new Cisco Mobility Services Engine with Cisco Prime Infrastructure to use Cisco CMX
Location Analytics. Which action is required?
A. Enable Context Aware and CMX Browser Engage
B. Enable tracking parameters in Cisco Mobility Service Engine
C. Set history parameters in Cisco Mobility Service Engine
D. Install Cisco Prime infrastructure with floor maps
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
An engineer used an interface group under the SSID configuration, but noticed that a test client is getting an IP
assigned in a different VLAN from the DHCP server. Which two options override the interface group configuration on the
SSID? (Choose two.)
A. static VLAN on client
B. ACL
C. AP group
D. static IP on client
E. MAC filtering
F. RF group
G. AAA override
Correct Answer: CG
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_0100110.html

 

QUESTION 5
You have just added a new MSE to Prime Infrastructure and want to synchronize the MSE with your 5508 WLC. which
is located behind a firewall in a DMZ. You notice that NMSP messages are failing between the two devices. What traffic
needs to be allowed on the Firewall to ensure the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?
A. UDP 16113
B. TCP 1613
C. TCP 16113
D. UDP 1613
Correct Answer: C
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/113344-cuwn-ppm.html

 

QUESTION 6
A customer is concerned about the number of associations on the guest WLAN and wants to reduce load to ensure
there are sufficient resources for the High Density WLAN. Which configuration setting meets this need?
A. Change the QoS profile of the guest WLAN to Bronze.
B. Set a low Maximum Allowed Clients on the Guest WLAN.
C. Configure MFP client protection on the high density WLAN.
D. Enable DHCP Profiling and restrict guest devices using a policy map.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Scenario The East-WLC-2504A controller has a problem. When configuration changes are made to the Employees-East-
Wing AP Group that covers the East-Wing, none of the APs receive the updates. Refer to the exhibits to determine
where the problems are.lead4pass 300-365 exam question q7

Note, not all menu items, text boxes, or radio buttons are active.

lead4pass 300-365 exam question q7-1

Which four changes must be made in the configuration of the East-WLC-2504A controller to restore functionality to the
Employees-East-Wing AP Group? (Choose four.)
A. Change the AP in the Employees-East-Wing AP Group.
B. Change the IP Address in the east-wing interface.
C. Change the VLAN Identifier in the east-wing interface.
D. Enable Dynamic AP Management in the east-wing interface.
E. Change the Port Number to 2 in the east-wing interface.
F. Add the Primary Controller and IP address to the 3700-East-Wing AP.
G. Change the SSID in the Employees-East-Wing AP Group.
H. Change the Interface/Interface Group in the Employees-East-Wing AP Group.
Correct Answer: DFGH
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/69639-wlc-failover.html

 

QUESTION 8
A customer is concerned that the mesh network will not converge quickly enough because of the 20 percent premium
that is given to the selected parent. What is the purpose of the premium?
A. It speeds up convergence.
B. It uses SNR, regardless of the premium.
C. It prevents link flapping.
D. It creates a list of other potential parents.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/mesh/8-3/b_mesh_83/Site_Preparation_and_Planning.html

 

QUESTION 9
By default, how long does a Mobility Services Engine wait for an echo response from a Wireless LAN Controller before
declaring the neighbor dead?
A. 10 Seconds
B. 60 Seconds
C. 15 Seconds
D. 30 Seconds
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/prime_infrastructure/2-0/configuration/guide/pi_20_cg/mse.html

 

QUESTION 10
A wireless engineer at a convention center has been asked to provision an SSID that can accommodate 4,000 users
during a conference. Which interface group configuration should be used?
A. One interface with /20 mask
B. Two interfaces with /21 mask
C. Four interfaces with /22 mask
D. Eight interfaces with /23 mask
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer has installed a new voice WLAN. Which three configurations would the engineer verify for QoS on the
controller? (Choose three.)
A. client load balancing
B. DHCP address assignment required
C. Platinum QoS for the VoWLAN
D. IEEE 802.1X and Cisco Centralized Key Management
E. WMM allowed
F. client band select
Correct Answer: ACE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-3/config-guide/b_cg83/b_cg83_chapter_0100010.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
An engineer is attempting to send multicast data to all multicast routers in the network with ID 338789750. Which IP
address should be used?
A. 224.0.0.1
B. 224.0.0.2
C. 224.0.0.4
D. 224.0.0.3
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
A network engineer is experiencing issues enabling LAG on the WLC. Which four characteristics should be validated to
ensure LAG configuration? (Choose four.)
A. ll ports participate in the LAG by default when LAG is enabled on the controller. y
B. Dynamic interfaces and management are moved to port 1
C. Primary and secondary ports are needed for each interface.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces to the same port are not allowed.
E. EtherChannel must be configured for mode “on” on the switch.
F. Only one functional physical port is needed to continue to pass traffic.
G. Multiple LAGs are permitted on the controller.
H. The WLC does not need to be rebooted to enable the LAG configuration.
Correct Answer: ADEF
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_0100011.html

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300-101 dumps

Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A network engineer executes the show ip cache flow command. Wich two types of information are displayed in the report that is generated? (Choose 2)
A. top talkers
B. flow export statistics
C. flow sample for specific protocols
D. MLS flow traffic
E. IP packet distribution
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing information?
A. Layer4
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 1
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which traffic does the following configuration allow? ipv6 access-list cisco permit ipv6 host 2001:DB8:0:4::32 any eq ssh line vty 0 4 ipv6 access-class cisco in
A. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
B. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
C. only ssh traffic to vty 0 4 from source 2001:DB8:0:4::32
D. all traffic to vty 0 4 from source all
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. 300-101 dumps Will redistributed RIP routes from OSPF Area 2 be allowed in Area 1?
300-101 dumps
A. Because Area 1 is an NSSA, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed.
B. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 5 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
C. Because NSSA will discard type 7 LSAs, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed in Area 1.
D. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 7 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1.
E. RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 only if they are first redistributed into EIGRP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
If R1 is configured for 6to4 tunneling, what will the prefix of its IPv6 network be?
A. 1723:1100:1::/48
B. FFFF:AC1F:6401::/16
C. AC1F:6401::/32
D. 2002:AC1F:6401::/48
E. 3FFE:AC1F:6401::/32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
A new TAC engineer came to you for advice. A GRE over IPsec tunnel was configured, but the tunnel is not coming up.
What did the TAC engineer configure incorrectly?
A. The crypto isakmp configuration is not correct.
B. The crypto map configuration is not correct.
C. The network 172.16.1.0 is not included in the OSPF process.
D. The interface tunnel configuration is not correct.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two methods of deployment can you use when implementing NAT64? (Choose two.)
A. stateless
B. stateful
C. manual
D. automatic
E. static
F. functional
G. dynamic
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which statement about dual stack is true?
A. Dual stack translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
B. Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel.
C. Dual stack translates IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.
D. Dual stack changes the IP addresses on hosts from IPv4 to IPv6 automatically.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The following configuration is applied to a router at a branch site: ipv6 dhcp pool dhcp-pool dns-server 2001:DB8:1:B::1 dns-server 2001:DB8:3:307C::42 domain-name example.com ! If IPv6 is configured with default settings on all interfaces on the router, which two dynamic IPv6 addressing mechanisms could you use on end hosts to provide end-to-end connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. EUI-64
B. SLAAC
C. DHCPv6
D. BOOTP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about EVN are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose two)
A. Virtual network tags are assigned per-VRF.
B. it is supported only on access ports.
C. Virtual network tags are assigned globally.
D. Routing metrics can be manipulated only from directly within the routing-context configuration.
E. The VLAN ID in the 802.1q frame carries the virtual network tag.
F. The VLAN ID is the ISL frame carries the virtual network tag.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
In which scenario can asymmetric routing occur?
A. active/active firewall setup
B. single path in and out of the network.
C. active/standby firewall setup
D. redundant routers running VRRP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two options are requirements for EIGRP authentication? (Choose two)
A. A crypto map must be configured.
B. The Authentication key must be configured under the interface running EIGRP.
C. The authentication key must be configured within the EIGRP routing configuration.
D. The authentication key IDs must match between two neighbors.
E. A separate key chain must be configured.
F. AN IPsec profile must be configured.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a GRE Tunnel characteristic?
A. GRE impose more CPU overhead than IPSec on VPN gateways
B. GRE tunnels can run through IPsec tunnels.
C. GRE Tunnel doesn\’t have support for IPv6
D. GRE consists of two sub-protocols: Encapsulated Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?
A. PAP
B. dot1x
C. IPsec
D. CHAP
E. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of NAT-PT between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks shown?
A. The router will determine the IPv4 destination address.
B. The source IPv6 host can use DNS to determine the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
C. The host is statically configured with the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
D. ICMP can be used to determine the IPv6-to-IPv4 address mapping.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Which interoperability technique implemented on the router would allow Host-1 to communicate with Host-2?
A. Dual Stack
B. NAT-PT
C. 6to4 tunnel
D. GRE tunnel
E. ISATAP tunnel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A network engineer executes the andquot;ipv6 flowsetandquot; command. What is the result?
A. Flow-label marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
B. Flow-set marking in 1280-byte or larger packets is enabled.
C. IPv6 PMTU is enabled on the router.
D. IPv6 flow control is enabled on the router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true about using IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on a network segment? (Choose two.)
A. Hosts can be configured to receive both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses via DHCP.
B. Host configuration options for IPv4 can be either statically assigned or assigned via DHCP.Host configuration options for IPv6 can be statically assigned only.
C. IPv6 allows a host to create its own IPv6 address that will allow it to communicate to other devices on a network configured via DHCP. IPv4 does not provide a similar capability for hosts.
D. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses can be simultaneously assigned to a host but not to a router interface.
E. IPv6 provides for more host IP addresses but IPv4 provides for more network addresses.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connecton to various remote sties, but no OSPF adiacencies come up. 300-101 dumps Which two actions are possible solutions for this issue? (Choose Two)
A. Change the network type to point-to-murpont under WAN interface
B. Enable virtual Iinks
C. Change the networktype to nonbroadcast mutpoint access
D. Configure the neighbor command under OSPF process for each remote site
E. Ensure that the OSPF process number matches among all remote sites
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
The OSPF database of a router shows LSA types 1, 2, 3, and 7 only. Which type of area is this router connected to?
A. stub area
B. totally stubby area
C. backbone area
D. not-so-stubby area
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which of the below mentioned conditions form a neighbor relationship in EIGRP? (Choose three)
A. Hello or ACK received
B. AS number match
C. Hello timer match
D. Identical metric (k values)
E. Dead Timer Match
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Given the partial configuration in the exhibit, which IPv6 statement is true?
A. The configuration is an example of an encrypted IPv6 VPN tunnel.
B. The configuration is an example of a one to one IPv6 tunnel.
C. The configuration is an example of a 6to4 tunnel.
D. The configuration is an example of a 4to6 tunnel.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps
Which two statements are correct regarding the routes to be redistributed into OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 100.
B. The network 192.168.1.0 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
C. All networks except 10.0.0.0/8 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
D. The network 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
E. The network 10.0.10.0/24 will be allowed and assigned a metric of 200.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
Which Cisco VPN technology uses AAA to implement group policies and authorization and is also used for the XAUTH authentication method?
A. DMVPN
B. Cisco Easy VPN
C. GETVPN
D. GREVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? 300-101 dumps (Choose three.)
A. simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B. improved shared services support
C. enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D. reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E. increased network performance and throughput
F. decreased BGP neighbor configurations
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 26
Which command must be globally enabled on a Cisco router to support IPv6?
A. ip routing ipv6
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 routing
D. ip classless
E. ipv6 cef
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of the perimeter router, accomplish? router(config)#access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any router (config)#interface fastEthernet 1/0 router (config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
A. It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0-10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0- 172.31.255.255, 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.
B. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any exit to the Internet.
C. It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion attempts.
D. It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which statement describes what this command accomplishes when inside and outside interfaces are correctly identified for NAT?
ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.1.50 80 209.165.201.1 8080 extendable
A. It allows host 192.168.1.50 to access external websites using TCP port 8080.
B. It allows external clients coming from public IP 209.165.201.1 to connect to a web server at 192.168.1.50.
C. It allows external clients to connect to a web server hosted on 192.168.1.50.
D. It represents an incorrect NAT configuration because it uses standard TCP ports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?
A. dual-stack method
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of andquot;FFFEandquot; inserted into the address. Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?
A. IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B. The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C. IPv6 addresses containing andquot;FFFEandquot; indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D. The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E. IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.
Correct Answer: A

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600-460 dumps

New Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialist 600-460 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which option about the ICM heartbeat interval and maximum number of missed heartbeats allowed between duplexed sides over the private network is true?
A. 100 ms, 3 heartbeats
B. 100 ms, 5 heartbeats
C. 400 ms, 3 heartbeats
D. 400 ms, 5 heartbeats
E. The heartbeat interval and maximum missed heartbeats settings can be customized by a system administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are about to perform a Tech Refresh upgrade for a customer. The customer wants more details about how the historical data is maintained. 600-460 dumps The customer has two sides each with a router, logger, and HDSDDS. Which is the best explanation?
A. The loggers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each logger keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
B. The routers exchange historical data to keep themselves up to date and each router keeps its local HDS-DDS up to date.
C. The HDS-DDSs continuously synchronized the historical data to keep themselves up to date.
D. Each side synchronized its data from the logger using SQL replication.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When performing an upgrade to Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, which components do not need to be upgraded together during the same maintenance window?
A. Cisco Unified ICM call router and logger
B. Cisco Unified ICM call router and administrative workstation
C. Cisco Unified ICM call router and peripheral gateway
D. administrative workstation and HDS-DDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution, if the private network fails but the visible network is still operational, which statement is true?
A. The system stops routing calls because it cannot function without a private network.
B. The private network data is rerouted automatically over the visible network.
C. Both call routers go active and attempt to split the system until the private network is restored.
D. The system continues to operate but with only one call router in simplex mode.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two things can cause the “Send to VRU” to fail within an ICM script for Cisco Unified Customer Voice Portal? (Choose two.)
A. No network VRU is configured for the routing client.
B. VRU PIM just got out of service.
C. Incorrect media file name.
D. Send to originator is not enabled.
E. Primary VRU peripheral gateway is out of service.
Correct Answer: AB
600-460 dumps
QUESTION 11
Which three steps need to be performed on a third party SIP phone device when adding it to Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. Select XML as the method to send the third party SIP phone its configuration file.
B. Add the MAC address of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to the SIP phone configuration.
C. Set the directory numbers to match the directory numbers configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Set the digest user ID in the SIP device to match the digest user ID in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. Set the TLS user ID and password in the SIP phone to match the TLS user ID and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
F. Set the proxy address in the SIP phone to match the IP address or fully qualified domain name of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 12
Which two gateway configuration statements are required in order to enable Cisco Unified Communications Manager to control a T1 PRI in an MGCP gateway? (Choose two.)
A. mgcp
B. ccm-manager config
C. pri-group configuration on the controller
D. mgcp call-agent pointing to tftp server
E. isdn l3-backhaul ccm-manager on the serial interface
F. ccm-manager config server {TFTP ip_address}
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 13
If a service is currently deactivated, how can the service be reactivated from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability Control Center page?
A. by clicking on the radio button to the left of the service on the Control Center page
B. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Service Activation and then clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it
C. by selecting Tools > Service Activation, selecting the correct server, and clicking on the radio button to the left of the service to activate it
D. by selecting Cisco Unified CM Serviceability > Tools, clicking on the radio button to the left of the service that needs to be activated, and then returning to the Control Center to activate the service
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two of these media resources are available only in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. transcoding
B. audio conferencing
C. MTP
D. annunciator
E. MOH
F. voice termination
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 15
Which three steps are necessary in order to configure DHCP for phone support using the GUI in Cisco Unified Communications Manager 6.0? (Choose three.)
A. add the DHCP server IP address to the device pool
B. activate DHCP Monitor Service
C. add and configure the DHCP server
D. start the application on an external server
E. configure the DHCP subnet
F. download the DHCP server application from the plug-in page
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 16
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? 600-460 dumps (Choose two.)
A. point-to-multipoint, two-way audio stream
B. separate audio stream for each connection
C. multiple audio streams that require multiple multicast IP addresses
D. support for all codecs that are also supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager servers
E. conservation of system resources and bandwidth
F. the requirement that there always be a dedicated MOH server
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 17
Which three determinations are possible when using the Presence feature in a Cisco Unified Communications network? (Choose three.)
A. Determine if an IP phone has been unplugged if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
B. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is outside the Cisco Unified Communications cluster of the watcher.
C. Determine if an IP phone is on hook or off hook if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
D. Determine if a set of IP phones is on hook or off hook if if the phones are in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
E. Determine if an IP phone has been moved or the user has been changed if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
F. Determine if an IP phone has been off hook beyond a specified period of time if the phone is in the same Cisco Unified Communications cluster as the watcher.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. shared line appearances
B. centralized DSP resources
C. extension mobility within the cluster
D. scalability up to 20 sites, if there is sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
E. failover to co-resident Cisco Unified Call Manager Express platforms
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
What is one difference between Cisco inline power and 802.3af PoE?
A. Cisco inline power should only be activated for those ports that require PoE to avoid oversubscription.
B. You must determine the total number of IP phones the switch can support with 802.3af to avoid oversubscription.
C. You must specify which set of pins the powered device is going to accept power on for 802.3af.
D. Cisco inline power provides a variable amount of power by using CDP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which IP phone hardening technique will prevent call signaling and media stream tampering?
A. disable GARP
B. disable PC-to-voice VLAN access
C. use MIC firmware images signed by Cisco
D. store IP phone configuration files on the SFTP server
E. deploy authentication and encryption between IP phones and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Correct Answer: E

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 456 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two options are two results of using the command spanning-tree vlan 50 root primary within a spanning-tree network under global configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning tree determines the priority of the current root for VLAN 50 and reduces the priority of the local switch to a lower value.
B. The priority value for VLAN 50 is set to 4094 on the root while the local switch priority is set to 32768.
C. The spanning-tree timers are reduced to improve the convergence time for VLAN 50.
D. All ports that are configured on the current switch with VLAN 50 transition to designated ports.
E. The switchport that is configured for VLAN 50 is the primary connection to the spanning-tree root switch.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
300-115 dumps What is the default port security violation
A. log
B. shutdown
C. no change
D. error-disable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Based on the debug output, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose Three)
A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address 172.16.11.111
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Question about trunk configuration
int faX/X
switchport trunk allowed vlan x,x,x,x
switchport mode trunk
exit
show vlan
VLAN Name Status Ports
— ——————–?—— ———————
1 default active Fa0/1, Fa0/3, Fa0/3, FaX/X
show interface trunk
(no output)
A. link is shutdown
B. interface needs no shutdown
C. other side is configured as access port
D. missing switchport command
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed. 300-115 dumps
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps
What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which will identify the master switch in stack wise?
A. lower priority
B. higher priority
C. lower id
D. higher id
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
When a Layer 2 EtherChannel is configured, which statement about placement of the IP address is true?
A. The IP address is placed on the highest numbered member port.
B. The IP address is placed on the port-channel logical interface.
C. The IP address is placed on the lowest numbered member port.
D. The IP address is assigned via DHCP only.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two)
A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0
B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root
D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1
F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
An enterprise network has port security sticky enabled on all access ports. A network administrator moves a PC from one office desk to another. 300-115 dumps After the PC is moved, the network administrator clears the port security on the new network switch port connecting to the PC, but the port keeps going back into errdisabled mode. Which two factors are possible causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. Port security sticky exists on the new network switch port
B. Port security sticky is disabled on the new network switch port
C. Port security must be disabled on all access ports
D. Port security is still enabled on the older network switch port
E. Port security sticky is still enabled on the older network switch port
Correct Answer: AE

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware.
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? 210-260 dumps (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
210-260 dumps Which syslog severity level is level number 7?
A. Warning
B. Informational
C. Notification
D. Debugging
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? 100-105 dumps
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN.
How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
100-105 dumps The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps
Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information? 200-105 dumps
A. 802.1x
B. 802 1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? 200-105 dumps (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 9
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address? 200-105 dumps
A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

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[New Version] Update Free Latest Cisco 400-201 Dumps PDF Practice Materials And VCE Youtube Demo

Latest Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps pdf practice materials and dumps vce youtube demo. Lead4pass offers best Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps exam questions and answers free update. https://www.lead4pass.com/400-201.html dumps exam practice files. Download high quality Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free try, pass Cisco 400-201 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE Service Provider
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider
Exam Code: 400-201
Total Questions: 451 Q&As
400-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS? 400-201 dumps
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources?
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. 400-201 dumps Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? 400-201 dumps (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB

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