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Salesforce DEV-450 online practice test from a part of Lead4Pass DEV-450 dumps

QUESTION 1
Universal Containers wants to understand all of the configuration changes that have been made over the
last six months.
What tool should an Administrator use to gather this information?
A. Setup Audit Trail
B. Debug Log
C. Custom Report Type
D. Network Access Settings
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Universal Containers requires that the organization-wide default for opportunities be set to public read/ write. However,
sales users complain that opportunity reports return too many results, making it difficult to find their team\\’s
opportunities in the report results.
How can the System Administrator address the problem?
A. Update the account team settings.
B. Update the sales manager hierarchy.
C. Update the report filters.
D. Update the opportunity report access.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which two settings can a System Administrator enable in the User Interface Setup? (Choose two.)
A. Related list hover links.
B. Printable list views
C. Customizable recent tags
D. Chatter Messenger for specific users
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 4
When working on opportunities, sales representatives at Universal Containers need to understand how their peers have
successfully managed other opportunities with comparable products, competing against the same competitors?
Which two features should an administrator use to facilitate this? (Choose two.)
A. Opportunity update reminders
B. Opportunity Dashboard
C. Chatter groups
D. Big deal alert
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 5
What does campaign influence allow a user to do?
A. Adjust the percentage of influence each campaign has on an opportunity.
B. Summarize campaign member statistics on a campaign.
C. Report on the campaigns that have contributed to an opportunity.
D. View the entire campaign hierarchy.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
At Universal Containers, the sharing model is set to private. Sales operations, legal, and accounting users all have the
Standard User profile. A person from each department will assist the Account Executive in the sales process. The Sales
operations and Accounting Reps need read/write access and legal needs read-only access to the Opportunity object.
What should the Administrator do to ensure that each person has the correct access?
A. Create a criteria-based opportunity sharing rule for each user.
B. Assign a custom profile to the users that need access opportunities.
C. Add the users to the opportunity team.
D. Manually share the account record with each other.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Universal Containers wants to back-up Salesforce data on a monthly basis. Which tools can a System Administrator use
to meet this requirement?
A. Data Loader, Reporting Snapshot, Report Export
B. Data Loader. Scheduled Report, Reporting Snapshot
C. Data Export Service, Reporting Snapshot, Einstein Analytics
D. Data Export Service, Data Loader, Report Export
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
The sales team at Universal Containers wants an easy solution to gather customer requirements and share
presentations with their customers.
Which two actions should an administrator take to help the sales team achieve this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Create opportunity teams for customers.
B. Use Chatter files to share presentations.
C. Add customers to libraries.
D. Add customers to private Chatter group.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9
How many filters can be added to a dashboard?
A. 10
B. 5
C. 3
D. 7
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
What should an administrator consider when setting up Case Feed?
A. Case Feed replaces the standard case detail page by default.
B. Case Feed requires the Service Cloud User feature license.
C. The Use Case Feed permission is automatically active for all profiles.
D. Chatter Feed tracking must be enabled for the case object.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
A marketing user has received a file of leads to import into Salesforce. What tool can be used to avoid duplicate lead
records?
A. Merge leads function
B. Validation rules
C. Data loader
D. Data import Wizard
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Universal Containers uses web-to-case to convert support requests submitted through its website into cases. The
support team would like Salesforce to automatically send an email containing password reset instructions to the
customer when the case subject contains the words “forgot” and “password”.
What does the administrator need to configure to meet this requirement?
A. Validation rule
B. Auto-response rule
C. Email-to-case
D. Support settings
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which three are Chatter features? (Choose three.)
A. Notes
B. Bookmarks
C. Recommendations
D. Feeds
E. Events
Correct Answer: BCD


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QUESTION 1
The Supplier Management process must define several formal policies and procedures to cover possible events in the
service provider-supplier relationship.
According to ISO/IEC 20000-1, what would not be defined?
A. Complaints procedure
B. Contractual disputes
C. Early termination of the contract
D. Transfer of service
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held in the
Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends. Which aspect of Problem Management
accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Staff competencies and training needs shall be reviewed and managed. Why is this necessary?
A. To enable employees to perform their role effectively
B. To help staff to further their career
C. To improve service reporting
D. To reduce the operational cost of the organization
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which process has the objective of helping to control the IT infrastructure by maintaining a logical model of the IT
infrastructure and IT services?
A. Budgeting and accounting for services
B. Capacity management
C. Change management
D. Configuration management
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
What is used for the assessment of maturity of organizations?
A. CMMI®
B. CobITTM
C. ITIL®
D. MOF
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A Release policy needs to be documented and agreed. What must be included in the Release policy?
A. an analysis of the success or failure of
B. Releases Requests For Change (RFCs)
C. the frequency and type of Releases D. the Release dates
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for providing information about the IT infrastructure to all other processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Change management
C. Configuration management
D. Problem management
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which factor partly determines the priority of an Incident?
A. the category
B. the impact
C. the requisite resources
D. the wishes of the customer
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
What can be improved by achieving quality objectives?
A. Effectiveness of the service
B. Personal satisfaction of the Configuration Manager
C. Relationship with interested suppliers
D. Relationship with unauthorized patties
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
What is a valid description of an IT service?
A. A service as defined in the Service catalogue
B. A service that is deemed critical by the customer
C. Something of value delivered using IT, that is provided to a customer
D. Strategic support provided to a customer
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a best practice concerning information security risk assessment?
A. Information security risk assessments should be carried out by an external auditor to maintain objectivity.
B. Information security risk assessments should be performed as a result of the review of every incident.
C. Information security risk assessments should be performed at agreed intervals and be maintained during changes.
D. Information security risk assessments should be performed once a year.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
A number of new PCs have been installed at a company\\’s offices. For which activity was the Configuration
management process responsible?
A. Establishing the correct links in the Local Area Network
B. Installing software
C. Making available the necessary user\\’s manuals
D. Recording data regarding the PCs
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
How should the requirements for Service continuity and availability be identified?
A. These should be identified based upon historical data for major incidents and their business impact on the
organization.
B. These should be identified on the basis of customer satisfaction investigations, so that the real user needs can be
considered.
C. These should be identified based upon the business priorities, Service level agreements (SLAs) and assessed risks.
D. These should be made up from service requirements and SLAs if available.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are creating a purchase order for the procurement of material. Which of the following fields should you use to control
the procurement process?
Please choose the correct answer.
A. Material Type
B. Account Assignment
C. Valuation Class
D. Item Category
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are possible personalization\\’s of the SAP Fiori launchpad? There are 2 correct answers to this
question.
A. Selection of the design theme
B. Settings for language and region
C. Selection of SAP Fiori version
D. Selection of tile size
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 3
In your project, pricing conditions in purchase orders should only be visible to certain users. What must you configure
and assign?
A. Field selection key for the transaction
B. Field selection key for the activity category
C. User parameter EVO
D. User parameter EFB
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
At what level do you maintain the purchasing group in the material master?
Please choose the correct answer.
A. Plant
B. Purchasing organization
C. Company code
D. Client
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
You are posting a goods receipt without a corresponding purchase order (PO) in the system. Which of the following are
prerequisites for automatic generation of the PO at the time of goods receipt?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. The delivered material is a valuated stock material.
B. A central purchasing organization is assigned to the plant in Customizing.
C. The goods receipt to be posted is intended for consumption.
D. Automatic purchase order generation is activated for the movement type in Customizing.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are prerequisites for flexible workflows for purchase order approval? There are 3 correct answers
to this question.
A. Define the recipients for the flexible workflow in the Manage Workflows for Purchase Orders SAP Fiori app.
B. Activate the flexible workflow for purchase orders in customizing.
C. Deactivate the classic release procedure for purchase orders in customizing.
D. Create a class with flexible workflow characteristics for purchase orders.
E. Set up the preconditions for the flexible workflow in the Manage Workflows for Purchase Orders SAP Fiori app.
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 7
What are some key features of the SAP Smart Business key performance indicators (KPIs) tiles used for purchasing
analytics?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Each tile represents a set of actionable cards.
B. Chart snippets on a tile are updated after each start of the evaluation.
C. The tiles show key information that is updated in real-time.
D. Numbers on the tiles can have different colors to represent different thresholds of alert.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 8
Which organizational assignments mandatory for external procurement? Please choose the correct answer.
A. Plant – Purchasing Group
B. Company Code – Purchasing Organization
C. Reference Purchasing Organization – Purchasing Organization D. Plant – Purchasing Organization
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
In the standard system, a controllable system message is shown when a user creates a purchase order
with a delivery date in the past.
What must you configure to allow such purchase orders to only be issued by authorized users?
Please choose the correct answer.
A. Copy the system message to a new version, set it as an error message, and assign the version with the user parameter
MSV to non-authorized users.
B. Copy the system message to a new version, set it as a warning message, and assign the version to the user
parameter MSV to the authorized users.
C. Copy the system message to a new version, set it as a warning message, and assign the version to the user
parameter MSV to the non-authorized users.
D. Copy the system message to a new version, set it as an error message, and assign the version with the user parameter MSV to the authorized users.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Do you want to procure material from another plant What purchasing instrument would you use?
A. Standard purchase order
B. Warehouse transfer order
C. Stock transport order
D. Warehouse transfer request
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Where do posting with automatic account determination occur in SAP Materials Management? Please choose the
correct answer.
A. Material valuation.
B. Invoice verification
C. Material requirements planning
D. Requisition creation
E. inventory management
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
In your project, you need to make sure that consignment purchase orders utilize a different number range than other
purchase orders. What must you do?
Please choose the correct answer.
A. Customize a new document type and assign the item category for consignment only to this type.
B. Customize a new item category for this purpose and deactivate the standard one.
C. Customize a new item category for this purpose and assign a new number range to it.
D. Customize a new document type and assign only consignment vendors to it.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Your purchasing department wants to monitor overdue purchase orders. What are the prerequisites for issuing delivery
reminders for a purchase order?
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Maintain reminder periods in the purchase order item.
B. Maintain a confirmation control key in the supplier master.
C. Maintain purchasing value keys in the purchase order item.
D. Set message determination in Customizing and maintain message records.
E. Output the purchase order.
Correct Answer: ACD


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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements are true regarding the difference between compounding and concatenation?
A. Compounding is easier to filter in queries because the objects are separate whereas with concatenation, the key
string needs to be masked
B. Compounding is easier for users to understand because it is based on a 1:1 object mapping but concatenation is
more complex for users to understand and decipher
C. Concatenation uses a single key value but compounding uses more than one
D. Adding key fields in concatenation is easier because only the transformation needs to be changed but in
compounding structures need to be changed and data re-loaded
E. Compounding is supported in the definition of the info object whereas concatenation requires the creation of new
database tables
Correct Answer: ABCD

 

QUESTION 2
XML would be good for: Choose the correct answer(s):
A. Loading a shopping cart from an Internet application.
B. Efficiently loading 10,000 records.
C. Extracting from an SAP R/3 system.
D. Extracting from another BI system.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
You need to transfer delta data and ensure Full Quality of Service. You are using an SAP Business Warehouse Web
service. Which SAP Process Integration (SAP PI) adapter do you use?
A. SAP PI File Transfer Protocol adapter
B. SAP PI ABAP proxy communication adapter
C. SAP PI Remote Function Call adapter
D. SAP PI Simple Object Access Protocol Call adapter
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Using the Remodeling Toolbox, lnfoObjects can be changed without having to delete or reload master data. Determine
Whether this statement is true or false.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are types of SAP BW Info cubes?
A. Multicube
B. Inverted cube
C. Virtual cube
D. Relational cube
E. Basic cube
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 6
The PSA consists of a transparent table for sorting the detailed request in the format of the Transfer structure. Determine
the statement True or False.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are benefits of the DSO?
A. Overwrite capability.
B. Reporting.
C. Data Compression.
D. Store data on the document level.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 8
Your customer converts LSA to LSA++ and needs to streamline the enterprise data warehouse layer. What action Do you take?
A. Reduce the number of persistent InfoProviders.
B. Apply the SAP Business Warehouse workspace layer
C. Migrate all SAP Business Warehouse objects to SAP HANA optimized objects
D. Apply the Open ODS layer.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A navigational attribute: Choose the correct answer(s):
A. Must be allowed on the InfoObject.
B. Must be enabled for all providers where it should be used.
C. Provides a different view of “history” compared to the same InfoObject in the DIM.
D. Is a field on a dimension table.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 10
Open ODS Views enable you to define SAP BW data models for objects like database tables, database views or BW
DataSources (for direct access). Determine Whether this statement is true or false.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Business Content available for SAP BW on SAP HANA uses the LSA++ design concept with a DataSource, a Corporate
Memory, and a persistent propagator ADSO. Determine Whether this statement is true or false.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is required to perform currency conversion in an SAP HANA information model?
A. An inner join is required between the Open ODS View measures and the exchange rate table
B. A set of technical tables are required to store currencies and exchange rate types and rates
C. Setting a semantic type to a measure so the amount always includes a currency
D. Storing the currency and the exchange rate on the day of the transaction will improve performance
E. An interface to define how the currency conversion should be processed
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 13
Temporal conditions can be defined on columns of the following data types: timestamp, date, and text. Determine
Whether this statement is true or false.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B


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QUESTION 1
Which of the following would help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Add power meters to your servers.
B. Add screen savers to your PCs.
C. Add colour to your network printers.
D. Add redundancy to your storage devices.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes Carbon Neutrality?
A. Eliminating CO2 emissions from product manufacture.
B. Maintaining CO2 emissions at a pre-defined agreed level.
C. Balancing CO2 emissions with an equivalent offset amount.
D. Matching CO2 emissions between defined business areas.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a Framework that can be used to implement Green IT systems?
A. The IT Infrastructure Library.
B. The Environmental Systems Method.
C. The Green Data Centre Toolkit.
D. The Custom Development Framework.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Your organisation has introduced a cost reduction strategy. How can your green IT programme help?
A. Maximise equipment usage, minimise energy usage.
B. Decrease power management, increase data redundancy.
C. Maximise application security, minimise employee collaboration.
D. Increase desktop applications, decrease server applications.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of these is NOT an example of a Carbon Offsetting scheme?
A. Supplying new solar cookers in Indonesia.
B. Providing new for old car tyres in the United Kingdom.
C. Generating hydropower without dams in Fiji.
D. Making electricity from landfill in South Africa.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
How can adopting Green IT principles benefit an organisation\\’s reputation?
A. It demonstrates the organisation\\’s competitiveness to government.
B. It demonstrates the organisation\\’s aspirations to customers.
C. It demonstrates the organisation\\’s buying needs to suppliers.
D. It demonstrates the organisation\\’s commitment to charity.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
What is the best slogan for a Green IT strategy?
A. Plan, Prepare, Proceed.
B. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle.
C. Less servers, Less paper, Less PCs.
D. People, Product, Premises.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green IT programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
ITU is the U81N agency for information and communication technologies. What does ITU stand for?
A. Information Technology Unit.
B. International Telecommunications Union.
C. Intergovernmental Terminals Upgrade.
D. International Treaties Unlimited.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
How often should you review your Green IT Action Plan?
A. At least annually.
B. At least biannually.
C. At least weekly.
D. At least monthly.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
You have started a Green IT programme. Which of these is a critical success factor?
a.Developing staff with the right knowledge and skills.
b.Defining clear staff roles and responsibilities.
c.Establishing and maintaining stakeholder buy-in.
d.Establishing staff disciplinary procedures and penalties.
A. c and d.
B. a and d.
C. b, c and d.
D. a, b and c.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by extracting minerals.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is amongst the five marketing actions an organisation should take when greening
their brand?
a) Be accountable.
b) Be transparent.
c) Be credible.
d) Be an enabler.
A. a and d only.
B. a and b only.
C. b, c and d only.
D. a, b, c and d.
Correct Answer: D


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QUESTION 1
What is a key feature of the privacy metric template adapted from the National Institute of Standards and Technology
(NIST)?
A. It provides suggestions about how to collect and measure data.
B. It can be tailored to an organization\\’s particular needs.
C. It is updated annually to reflect changes in government policy.
D. It is focused on organizations that do business internationally.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Henry Home Furnishings has built high-end furniture for nearly forty years. However, the new owner,
Anton, has found some degree of disorganization after touring the company headquarters. His uncle Henry
had always focused on production – not data processing – and Anton is concerned. In several storage
rooms, he has found paper files, disks, and old computers that appear to contain the personal data of
current and former employees and customers. Anton knows that a single break-in could irrevocably
damage the company\\’s relationship with its loyal customers. He intends to set a goal of guaranteed zero
loss of personal information.
To this end, Anton originally planned to place restrictions on who was admitted to the physical premises of
the company. However, Kenneth – his uncle\\’s vice president and longtime confidante – wants to hold off
on Anton\\’s idea in favor of converting any paper records held at the company to electronic storage.
Kenneth believes this process would only take one or two years. Anton likes this idea; he envisions a
password-protected system that only he and Kenneth can access.
Anton also plans to divest the company of most of its subsidiaries. Not only will this make his job easier,
but it will simplify the management of the stored data. The heads of subsidiaries like the art gallery and
kitchenware store down the street will be responsible for their own information management. Then, any
unneeded subsidiary data still in Anton\\’s possession can be destroyed within the next few years.
After learning of a recent security incident, Anton realizes that another crucial step will be notifying
customers. Kenneth insists that two lost hard drives in question are not cause for concern; all of the data
was encrypted and not sensitive in nature. Anton does not want to take any chances, however. He intends
on sending notice letters to all employees and customers to be safe.
Anton must also check for compliance with all legislative, regulatory, and market requirements related to
privacy protection. Kenneth oversaw the development of the company\\’s online presence about ten years
ago, but Anton is not confident about his understanding of recent online marketing laws. Anton is assigning
another trusted employee with a law background the task of the compliance assessment. After a thorough
analysis, Anton knows the company should be safe for another five years, at which time he can order
another check. Documentation of this analysis will show auditors due diligence.
Anton has started down a long road toward improved management of the company, but he knows the
effort is worth it. Anton wants his uncle\\’s legacy to continue for many years to come.
What would the company\\’s legal team most likely recommend to Anton regarding his planned
communication with customers?
A. To send consistent communication.
B. To shift to electronic communication.
C. To delay communications until local authorities are informed.
D. To consider under what circumstances communication is necessary.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Penny has recently joined Ace Space, a company that sells homeware accessories online, as its new
privacy officer. The company is based in California but thanks to some great publicity from a social media
influencer last year, the company has received an influx of sales from the EU and has set up a regional
office in Ireland to support this expansion. To become familiar with Ace Space\\’s practices and assess what
her privacy priorities will be, Penny has set up meetings with a number of colleagues to hear about the
work that they have been doing and their compliance efforts.
Penny\\’s colleague in Marketing is excited by the new sales and the company\\’s plans, but is also
concerned that Penny may curtail some of the growth opportunities he has planned. He tells her “I heard
someone in the breakroom talking about some new privacy laws but I really don\\’t think it affects us. We\\’re
just a small company. I mean we just sell accessories online, so what\\’s the real risk?” He has also told her
that he works with a number of small companies that help him get projects completed in a hurry. “We\\’ve
got to meet our deadlines otherwise we lose money. I just sign the contracts and get Jim in finance to push
through the payment. Reviewing the contracts takes time that we just don\\’t have.”
In her meeting with a member of the IT team, Penny has learned that although Ace Space has taken a
number of precautions to protect its website from malicious activity, it has not taken the same level of care
of its physical files or internal infrastructure. Penny\\’s colleague in IT has told her that a former employee
lost an encrypted USB key with financial data on it when he left. The company nearly lost access to their
customer database last year after they fell victim to a phishing attack. Penny is told by her IT colleague that the IT team
“didn\\’t know what to do or who should do what. We hadn\\’t been trained on it but we\\’re a small team though, so it
worked out OK in the end.” Penny is concerned that these issues will compromise Ace Space\\’s privacy and data
protection.
Penny is aware that the company has solid plans to grow its international sales and will be working closely with the CEO
to give the organization a data “shake up”. Her mission is to cultivate a strong privacy culture within the company.
Penny has a meeting with Ace Space\\’s CEO today and has been asked to give her first impressions and an overview
of her next steps.
To establish the current baseline of Ace Space\\’s privacy maturity, Penny should consider all of the following factors
EXCEPT?
A. Ace Space\\’s documented procedures
B. Ace Space\\’s employee training program
C. Ace Space\\’s vendor engagement protocols
D. Ace Space\\’s content sharing practices on social media
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
It\\’s just what you were afraid of. Without consulting you, the information technology director at your
organization launched a new initiative to encourage employees to use personal devices for conducting
business. The initiative made purchasing a new, high-specification laptop computer an attractive option,
with discounted laptops paid for as a payroll deduction spread over a year of paychecks. The organization
is also paying the sales taxes. It\\’s a great deal, and after a month, more than half the organization\\’s
employees have signed on and acquired new laptops. Walking through the facility, you see them happily
customizing and comparing notes on their new computers, and at the end of the day, most take their
laptops with them, potentially carrying personal data to their homes or other unknown locations. It\\’s
enough to give you data-protection nightmares, and you\\’ve pointed out to the information technology
Director and many others in the organization the potential hazards of this new practice, including the
inevitability of eventual data loss or theft.
Today you have in your office a representative of the organization\\’s marketing department who shares with
you, reluctantly, a story with potentially serious consequences. The night before, straight from work, with
laptop in hand, he went to the Bull and Horn Pub to play billiards with his friends. A fine night of sport and
socializing began, with the laptop “safely” tucked on a bench, beneath his jacket. Later that night, when it
was time to depart, he retrieved the jacket, but the laptop was gone. It was not beneath the bench or on
another bench nearby. The waitstaff had not seen it. His friends were not playing a joke on him. After a
sleepless night, he confirmed it this morning, stopping by the pub to talk to the cleanup crew. They had not
found it. The laptop was missing. Stolen, it seems. He looks at you, embarrassed and upset.
You ask him if the laptop contains any personal data from clients, and, sadly, he nods his head, yes. He
believes it contains files on about 100 clients, including names, addresses and governmental identification
numbers. He sighs and places his head in his hands in despair.
Which is the best way to ensure that data on personal equipment is protected?
A. User risk training.
B. Biometric security.
C. Encryption of the data.
D. Frequent data backups.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Edufox has hosted an annual convention of users of its famous e-learning software platform, and over
time, it has become a grand event. It fills one of the large downtown conference hotels and overflows into
the others, with several thousand attendees enjoying three days of presentations, panel discussions and
networking. The convention is the centerpiece of the company\\’s product rollout schedule and a great
training opportunity for current users. The sales force also encourages prospective clients to attend to get
a better sense of the ways in which the system can be customized to meet diverse needs and understand
that when they buy into this system, they are joining a community that feels like family.
This year\\’s conference is only three weeks away, and you have just heard news of a new initiative
supporting it: a smartphone app for attendees. The app will support late registration, highlight the featured
presentations and provide a mobile version of the conference program. It also links to a restaurant
reservation system with the best cuisine in the areas featured. “It\\’s going to be great,” the developer,
Deidre Hoffman, tells you, “if, that is, we actually get it working!” She laughs nervously but explains that
because of the tight time frame she\\’d been given to build the app, she outsourced the job to a local firm.
“It\\’s just three young people,” she says, “but they do great work.” She describes some of the other apps
they have built. When asked how they were selected for this job, Deidre shrugs. “They do good work, so I
chose them.”
Deidre is a terrific employee with a strong track record. That\\’s why she\\’s been charged to deliver this
rushed project. You\\’re sure she has the best interests of the company at heart, and you don\\’t doubt that
she\\’s under pressure to meet a deadline that cannot be pushed back. However, you have concerns about
the app\\’s handling of personal data and its security safeguards. Over lunch in the break room, you start to
talk to her about it, but she quickly tries to reassure you, “I\\’m sure with your help we can fix any security
issues if we have to, but I doubt there\\’ll be any. These people build apps for a living, and they know what
they\\’re doing. You worry too much, but that\\’s why you\\’re so good at your job!”
You see evidence that company employees routinely circumvent the privacy officer in developing new
initiatives.
How can you best draw attention to the scope of this problem?
A. Insist upon one-on-one consultation with each person who works around the privacy officer.
B. Develop a metric showing the number of initiatives launched without consultation and include it in reports,
presentations, and consultation.
C. Hold discussions with the department head of anyone who fails to consult with the privacy officer.
D. Take your concerns straight to the Chief Executive Officer.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) specifies fines that may be levied against data controllers for certain
infringements. Which of the following will be subject to administrative fines of up to 10 000 000 EUR, or in the case of an
undertaking, up to 2% of the total worldwide annual turnover of the preceding financial year?
A. Failure to demonstrate that consent was given by the data subject to the processing of their personal data where it is used as the basis for processing
B. Failure to implement technical and organizational measures to ensure data protection is enshrined by design and
default
C. Failure to process personal information in a manner compatible with its original purpose
D. Failure to provide the means for a data subject to rectify inaccuracies in personal data
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
What is the best way to understand the location, use and importance of personal data within an organization?
A. By analyzing the data inventory.
B. By testing the security of data systems.
C. By evaluating methods for collecting data.
D. By interviewing employees tasked with data entry.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
An executive for a multinational online retail company in the United States is looking for guidance in developing her
company\\’s privacy program beyond what is specifically required by law.
What would be the most effective resource for the executive to consult?
A. Internal auditors.
B. Industry frameworks.
C. Oversight organizations.
D. Breach notifications from competitors.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
In regards to the collection of personal data conducted by an organization, what must the data subject be allowed to
do?
A. Evaluate the qualifications of a third-party processor before any data is transferred to that processor.
B. Obtain a guarantee of prompt notification in instances involving unauthorized access of the data.
C. Set a time-limit as to how long the personal data may be stored by the organization.
D. Challenge the authenticity of the personal data and have it corrected if needed.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
An organization\\’s business continuity plan or disaster recovery plan does NOT typically include what?
A. Recovery time objectives.
B. Emergency response guidelines.
C. Statement of organizational responsibilities.
D. Retention schedule for storage and destruction of information.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
A Human Resources director at a company reported that a laptop containing employee payroll data was lost on the
train. Which action should the company take IMMEDIATELY?
A. Report the theft to law enforcement
B. Wipe the hard drive remotely
C. Report the theft to the senior management
D. Perform a multi-factor risk analysis
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Amira is thrilled about the sudden expansion of NatGen. As the joint Chief Executive Officer (CEO) with
her long-time business partner Sadie, Amira has watched the company grow into a major competitor in the
green energy market. The current line of products includes wind turbines, solar energy panels, and
equipment for geothermal systems. A talented team of developers means that NatGen\\’s line of products
will only continue to grow.
With the expansion, Amira and Sadie have received advice from new senior staff members brought on to
help manage the company\\’s growth. One recent suggestion has been to combine the legal and security
functions of the company to ensure observance of privacy laws and the company\\’s own privacy policy.
This sounds overly complicated to Amira, who wants departments to be able to use, collect, store, and
dispose of customer data in ways that will best suit their needs.
She does not want administrative oversight and complex structuring to get in the way of people doing
innovative work.
Sadie has a similar outlook. The new Chief Information Officer (CIO) has proposed what Sadie believes is
an unnecessarily long timetable for designing a new privacy program. She has assured him that NatGen
will use the best possible equipment for electronic storage of customer and employee data. She simply
needs a list of equipment and an estimate of its cost. But the CIO insists that many issues are necessary
to consider before the company gets to that stage.
Regardless, Sadie and Amira insist on giving employees space to do their jobs. Both CEOs want to entrust
the monitoring of employee policy compliance to low-level managers. Amira and Sadie believe these
managers can adjust the company privacy policy according to what works best for their particular
departments. NatGen\\’s CEOs know that flexible interpretations of the privacy policy in the name of
promoting green energy would be highly unlikely to raise any concerns with their customer base, as long
as the data is always used in course of normal business activities.
Perhaps what has been most perplexing to Sadie and Amira has been the CIO\\’s recommendation to
institute a privacy compliance hotline. Sadie and Amira have relented on this point, but they hope to compromise by
allowing employees to take turns handling reports of privacy policy violations. The implementation will be easy because
the employees need no special preparation. They will simply have to document any concerns they hear.
Sadie and Amira are aware that it will be challenging to stay true to their principles and guard against corporate culture
strangling creativity and employee morale. They hope that all senior staff will see the benefit of trying a unique
approach.
Based on the scenario, what additional change will increase the effectiveness of the privacy compliance hotline?
A. Outsourcing the hotline.
B. A system for staff education.
C. Strict communication channels.
D. An ethics complaint department.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is TRUE about a PIA (Privacy Impact Analysis)?
A. Any project that involves the use of personal data requires a PIA
B. A Data Protection Impact Analysis (DPIA) process includes a PIA
C. The PIA must be conducted at the early stages of the project lifecycle
D. The results from a previous information audit can be leveraged in a PIA process
Correct Answer: A


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Oracle 1Z0-083 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Oracle 1Z0-083 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which three methods can be used for heap table data migration after upgrading a database? (Choose three.)
A. using Database Replay
B. using SQL Developer
C. using Oracle Data Pump
D. using operating system file copy utilities
E. using Database Upgrade Assistant
F. using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT SQL statement
Correct Answer: DEF

 

QUESTION 2
Which three are true about requirements for various FLASHBACK operations? (Choose three.)
A. FLASHBACK transaction query requires to undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in
time.
B. FLASHBACK drop requires that the RECYCLE BIN parameter be set to ON.
C. FLASHBACK version query requires that the RECYCLE BIN parameter be set to ON.
D. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE requires to undo to store all versions of all rows of a table being tracked.
E. FLASHBACK drop requires to undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
F. FLASHBACK version query requires to undo to retrieve all versions of a row that existed between two points in time.
Correct Answer: ABC
Reference:
https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=0iwrL9P25Z0Candpg=PA35andlpg=PA35anddq=FLASHBACK+transaction+quer
y+requires+undo+to+retrieve+all+versions+of+a+row+that+existed+between+two+points+in
+timeandsource=blandots=MJnYl5CZ1uandsig=ACfU3U0dWP-NPd-U8uu3zbaoi3YZzT0FTQandhl=enandsa=Xandved
=2ahUKEwigi5_Jl9joAhXzUBUIHUh4DksQ6AEwAnoECAsQJg#v=onepageandq=FLASHBACK%20transaction%20quer
y%20requires%
20undo%20to%20retrieve%20all%20versions%20of%20a%20row%20that%20existed%20between%20two%20points%
20in%20timeandf=false
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/tables011.htm

 

QUESTION 3
Which two are true about SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)? (Choose two.)
A. It is integrated with the SQL Access Advisor.
B. It predicts the impact of system changes on SQL workload response time.
C. It provides before and after execution statistics for each SQL statement in the analysis task
D. It offers a fine-grained analysis of all the SQL statements in the analysis task as a group.
E. SQL statements that were originally run concurrently are run concurrently by SPA.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/spa-ow09-131455.pdf (4)

 

QUESTION 4
You are managing this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable databases in CDB1.
3.
USER1.EMP is a table in PDB1 and USER2.DEPT is a table in PDB2. CDB1 user SYS executes these commands
after connecting successfully to PDB2:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-083 exam questions q4

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The inserts on USER1.EMP remain uncommitted when the session connected to PDB2.
B. The inserts on USER1.EMP was committed when the session inserted a row into USER2.DEPT.
C. The inserts on USER2.DEPT fails because of the active transaction in the parent container.
D. The insert on USER2.DEPT is a recursive autonomous transaction by the child session and is committed.
E. The inserts on USER1.EMP was rolled back when the session connected to PDB2.
F. The insert on USER2.DEPT is uncommitted.
G. The inserts on USER1.EMP was committed when the session connected to PDB2.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 5
Which two are true about Oracle Optimizer Statistics, their use, and their collection? (Choose two.)
A. The number of table rows is considered when evaluating the cost of accessing a table using an index.
B. Index balanced B*Tree height is considered when evaluating the cost of using an index.
C. The Statistics Advisor can help recommend the best way to gather statistics.
D. Statistics collected using DBMS_STATS always yield the best optimizer result.
E. The Statistics Advisor generates actions for all recommendations.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tgsql/optimizer-statistics-advisor.html#GUIDD81A7708-FDA0-45BB-A6E2-103858B047AE

 

QUESTION 6
You have configured RMAN SBT channels to write backups to media. You then take an RMAN backup by using this
command:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-083 exam questions q6

Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. The restore point is a label for the system change number (SCN) that will be saved two years after the archival
backup was taken.
B. The data file backups in the self-contained archive backup are not considered obsolete for two years regardless of
the retention policy.
C. All archive logs created after this backup are kept for two years.
D. The SPFILE is included in the self-contaied archival backup.
E. The control file is included in the self-contained archival backup.
F. The restore point is a label for the system change number (SCN) before the archival backup was taken.
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 7
You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write.
The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.
Examine this list of actions:
1.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2.
Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.
3.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.
4.
Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.
5.
Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.
6.
Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination
system.
7.
Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.
8.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
E. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which two are true about data movement between a non-CDB and a PDB using Data Pump? (Choose two.)
A. Tablespaces are automatically created as needed while importing full exports in either a non-CDB or a PDB.
B. Oracle attempts to convert conventional database users to local users when moving schemas from a non-CDB to a
PDB.
C. A new PDB is automatically created when importing a non-CDB into a CDB.
D. Oracle attempts to convert common users to conventional users when moving schemas from a PDB to a non-CDB.
E. Moving data from a PDB to a non-CDB is only possible by using transportable tablespace export and import.
F. Moving data from a non-CDB to a PDB is only possible by using conventional export and import.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 9
Examine this configuration:
1.
The ORCL database data files are in Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group +DATA.
2.
ORCL uses disk group +FRA for the Fast Recovery Area.
3.
LISTENER is the listener for ORCL.
4.
The database, listener, ASM instance, and ASM disk groups are managed by Oracle Restart.
5.
All components are currently shut down.
You execute this command:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-083 exam questions q9

What is the outcome?
A. The ORCL database, the Oracle ASM instances, the +DATA, and +FRA disk groups, and the LISTENER are started.
B. Only the ORCL database instance is started.
C. Only the ORCL database and the ASM instances are started.
D. Only the ORCL database instance, the Oracle ASM instance, and the +DATA and +FRA disk groups are started.
E. Only the ORCL database instance and the +DATA and +FRA disk groups are started.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which three are true about RMAN persistent configuration settings, administration, and their effects? (Choose three.)
A. A target database\\’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target\\’s control file
B. Backup older than the recovery window retention policy are always deleted automatically if the backup location has
insufficient space.
C. Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are obsolete based on the redundancy retention policy can be
deleted automatically to free space.
D. The RMAN SHOW ALL command displays only settings with nondefault values.
E. A target database\\’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always synchronized automatically with the RMAN
catalog.
F. The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with values that have been modified.
G. A DBA must specify either a redundancy retention policy or a recovery window retention policy.
Correct Answer: ABF
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=pUEkAAAAQBAJandpg=PA114andlpg=PA114anddq=V$RMAN_CO
NFIGURATION+view+displays+only+settings+with+values+that+have+been +modifiedandsource=blandots=fhC9A7UL
eXandsig=ACfU3U2-cGhTjmAOpCZhvlL5R4j6ixLRAwandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwjJzfWmtnoAhXT8eAKHQ9uBG8Q6AEwAHoECAwQJg#v=onepageandq=V%24RMAN_CONFIGURATION%20view%
20displays%20only%20settings%20with%20values%20that%20have%20been%20modifiedandf=false

 

QUESTION 11
Which three are located by using environment variables? (Choose three.)
A. the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files.
B. the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files
C. the list of disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at
startup
D. default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces
E. the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation
F. the maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance
Correct Answer: BDF

 

QUESTION 12
Which two are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.
B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.
C. A DBA can run it manually.
D. Results are written to the alert log.
E. It analyzes a period of time corresponding to the last day of activity.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Examine this configuration:
1.
CDB1 is a container database.
2.
PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
You execute these commands successfully:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-083 exam questions q13

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. PDB1 and PDB2 are in MOUNT state.
B. Redo logs are opened.
C. PDB1 and PDB2 are in the reading the ONLY state.
D. CDB$ROOT is in MOUNT state.
E. PDB$SEED is in reading the ONLY state.
Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding the UNION and UNION ALL operators? (Choose two.)
A. Duplicates are eliminated automatically by the UNION ALL operator
B. The number of columns selected in each SELECT statement must be identical
C. The names of columns selected in each SELECT statement must be identical
D. The output is sorted by the UNION ALL operator
E. NULLS are not ignored during duplicate checking
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true about undoing segments and the use of undo by transactions in an Oracle database
instance? (Choose three.)
A. An undo segment may be used by multiple transactions simultaneously
B. Undo segments can wrap around to the first extent when a transaction fills the last extend of the undo segment
C. Undo segments have a minimum of three extents
D. Undo segments can extend when a transaction fills the last extent of the undo segment
E. A single transaction may use multiple undo segments simultaneously
F. Undo segments must be stored in a big file tablespace
G. Undo segments must be stored in a SMALL FILE tablespace
Correct Answer: ADG

 

QUESTION 3
Examine this description of the TRANSACTIONS table:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-082 exam questions q3

Which two SQL statements execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT customer_id AS “CUSTOMER-ID”, transaction_date AS DATE, amount + 100 “DUES” FROM transactions;
B. SELECT customer_id AS “CUSTOMER-ID”, transaction_date AS “DATE”, amount + 100 DUES FROM transactions;
C. SELECT customer_id AS CUSTOMER-ID, transaction_date AS TRANS_DATE, amount + 100 “DUES AMOUNT”
FROM transactions;
D. SELECT customer_id CUSTID, transaction_date TRANS_DATE, amount + 100 DUES FROM transactions;
E. SELECT customer_id AS `CUSTOMER-ID\\’, transaction_date AS DATE, amount + 100 `DUES AMOUNT\\’ FROM
transactions;
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 4
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table. Which two tasks require subqueries? (Choose two)[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-082 exam questions q4

A. Display the number of products whose PROD_LIST_PRICE is more than the average PROD_LIST_PRICE
B. Display suppliers whose PROD_LIST_PRICE is less than 1000
C. Display products whose PROD_MIN_PRICE is more than the average PROD_LIST_PRICE of all products, and
whose status is orderable
D. Display the total number of products supplied by supplier 102 which have a product status of obsolete
E. Display the minimum PROD_LIST_PRICE for each product status
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 5
In the SALES database, DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION is TRUE.
Examine this command:
SQL> CREATE TABLE T1(c1 INT PRIMARY KEY, c2 CLOB);
Which segment or segments, if any, are created as a result of executing the command?
A. T1, an index segment for the primary key, a LOB segment, and a lob index segment
B. no segments are created
C. T1 only
D. T1 and an index segment created for the primary key only
E. T1, an index segment for the primary key, and a LOB segment only
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo enabled.
An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.
Where is the UNDO stored?
A. in the undo tablespace
B. in the SYSAUX tablespace
C. in the SGA
D. in the PGA
E. in the temporary tablespace
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/undo.htm#ADMIN11478 (16.7)

 

QUESTION 7
In one of your databases, you create a user, HR, and then execute this command: GRANT CREATE SESSION TO hr
WITH ADMIN OPTION;
Which three actions can HR perform? (Choose three.)
A. Revoke the CREATE SESSION privilege from other users
B. Revoke the CREATE SESSION privilege from user HR
C. login to the database instance
D. Grant the CREATE SESSION privilege with ADMIN OPTION to other users
E. Execute DDL statements in the HR schema
F. Execute DML statements in the HR schema
Correct Answer: ADE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/authorization.htm#DBSEG224

 

QUESTION 8
Examine these commands:[2021.1] lead4pass 1z0-082 exam questions q8

Which two statements are true about the sqlldr execution? (Choose two.)
A. It overwrites data in EMP with data in EMP.DAT
B. It uses the database buffer cache to load data
C. It generates a log that contains control file entries, which can be used with normal SQL*Loader operations
D. It generates a SQL script that it uses to load data from EMP.DAT to EMP
E. It appends data from EMP.DAT to EMP
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 9
In the ORCL database, UNDOTBS1 is the active undo tablespace with these properties:
1.
A size of 100 MB
2.
AUTOEXTEND is off
3.
UNDO_RETENTION is set to 15 minutes
4.
It has RETENTION GUARANTEE
UNDOTBS1 fills with uncommitted undo 10 minutes after the database opens.
What will happen when the next update is attempted by any transaction?
A. It succeeds and the generated undo is stored in SYSTEM.
B. It fails and returns the error message “ORA-30036: unable to extend segment by 8 in undo tablespace
\\’UNDOTBS1\\’”.
C. It succeeds and the least recently written undo block of UNDOTBS1 is overwritten by the generated undo.
D. It succeeds and the generated undo is stored in SYSAUX.
E. It succeeds and the least recently read undo block of UNDOTBS1 is overwritten by the generated undo.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true about the Oracle to join and ANSI join syntax? (Choose three.)
A. The Oracle join syntax supports the creation of a Cartesian product of two tables
B. The Oracle join syntax performs better than the SQL:1999 compliant ANSI join syntax
C. The SQL:1999 compliant ANSI join syntax supports natural joins
D. The SQL:1999 compliant ANSI join syntax supports the creation of a Cartesian product of two tables
E. The Oracle join syntax only supports right outer joins
F. The Oracle join syntax supports natural joins
G. The Oracle join syntax performs less well than the SQL:1999 compliant ANSI join syntax
Correct Answer: CDF

 

QUESTION 11
Which two tasks can you perform using DBCA for databases? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a nonstandard block size for a new database
B. Register a new database with an available Enterprise Manager Management server
C. Change the standard block size of an existing database
D. Configure incremental backups for a new database
E. Enable flashback database for an existing database
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B16254_01/doc/server.102/b14196/install003.htm

 

QUESTION 12
You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.
One of the columns must meet three requirements:
1.
Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions
2.
Store a loan period of up to 10 years
3.
Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid
Which data type should you use?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE
D. TIMESTAMP
E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true about the DUAL table? (Choose two.)
A. It can be accessed only by the SYS user
B. It consists of a single row and single column of VARCHAR2 data type
C. It can display multiple rows but only a single column
D. It can be used to display only constants or pseudo columns
E. It can be accessed by any user who has the SELECT privilege in any schema
F. It can display multiple rows and columns
Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DUAL_table

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QUESTION 1
A company has migrated an on-premises Oracle database to an Amazon RDS for Oracle Multi-AZ DB instance in the useast-l Region. A solutions architect is designing a disaster recovery strategy to have the database provisioned in the uswest-2 Region in case the database becomes unavailable in the us-east-1 Region. The design must ensure the database is provisioned in the us-west-2 Region in a maximum of 2 hours, with a data loss window of no more than 3
hours.
How can these requirements be met?
A. Edit the DB instance and create a read replica in us-west-2. Promote the read replica to master In us-west-2 in case
the disaster recovery environment needs to be activated.
B. Select the multi-Region option to provision a standby instance in us-west-2. The standby Instance will be
automatically promoted to master In us-west-2 in case the disaster recovery environment needs to be created.
C. Take automated snapshots of the database instance and copy them to us-west-2 every 3 hours. Restore the latest
snapshot to provision another database instance in us-west-2 in case of the disaster recovery environment needs to be
activated.
D. Create a Multimaster read/write instances across multiple AWS Regions Select VPCs in us-east-1 and us-west-2 lo
make that deployment. Keep the master read/write instance in us-west-2 available to avoid having to activate a disaster
recovery environment.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
A company is planning to build a new web application on AWS. The company expects predictable traffic most of the
year and very high traffic on occasion. The web application needs to be highly available and fault-tolerant with minimal
latency.
What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
A. Use an Amazon Route 53 routing policy to distribute requests to two AWS Regions, each with one Amazon EC2
instance.
B. Use Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group with an Application Load Balancer across multiple Availability
Zones.
C. Use Amazon EC2 instances in a cluster placement group with an Application Load Balancer across multiple
Availability Zones.
D. Use Amazon EC2 instances in a cluster placement group and include the cluster placement group within a new Auto
Scaling group.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
A company is building applications in containers. The company wants to migrate its on-premises development and
operations services from its on-premises data center to AWS. Management states that the production system must be cloud-agnostic and use the same configuration and administrator tools across production systems. A solutions architect needs
to design a managed solution that will align open-source software.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Launch the containers on Amazon EC2 with EC2 instance worker nodes.
B. Launch the containers on Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) and EKS workers nodes.
C. Launch the containers on Amazon Elastic Containers service (Amazon ECS) with AWS Fargate instances.
D. Launch the containers on Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon EC) with Amazon EC2 instance worker
nodes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
A media company is evaluating the possibility of moving its systems to the AWS Cloud. The company needs at least 10
TB of storage with the maximum possible I/O performance for video processing. 300 TB of very durable storage for
storing media content, and 900 TB of storage to meet requirements for archival media that is not in use anymore. Which
set of services should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
A. Amazon EBS for maximum performance, Amazon S3 for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 Glacier for archival
storage
B. Amazon EBS for maximum performance. Amazon EFS for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 Glacier for archival
storage
C. Amazon EC2 instance store for maximum performance, Amazon EFS for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 for
archival storage
D. Amazon EC2 instance store for maximum performance, Amazon S3 for durable data storage, and Amazon S3
Glacier for archival storage
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A company is processing data on a daily basis. The results of the operations are stored in an Amazon S3 bucket,
analyzed daily for one week, and then must remain immediately accessible for occasional analysis.
What is the MOST cost-effective storage solution alternative to the current configuration?
A. Configure a lifecycle policy to delete the objects after 30 days
B. Configure a lifecycle policy to transition the objects to Amazon S3 Glacier after 30 days.
C. Configure a lifecycle policy to transition the objects to Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (S3 Standard-IA) after
30 days
D. Configure a lifecycle policy to transition the objects to Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA)
after 30 days.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A solutions architect needs to design a managed storage solution for a company\\’s application that includes high-performance machine learning. This application runs on AWS Fargate, and the connected storage needs to have
concurrent access to files and deliver high performance.
Which storage option should the solutions architect recommend?
A. Create an Amazon S3 bucket for the application and establish a 1 AM role for Fargate to communicate with Amazon
S3
B. Create an Amazon FSx for Lustre file share and establish a 1 AM role that allows Fargate to communicate with FSx
for Lustre.
C. Create an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file share and establish a 1 AM role that allows Fargate to
communicate with Amazon EFS.
D. Create an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume for the application and establish a 1 AM role that
allows Fargate to communicate with Amazon EBS
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/efs/

 

QUESTION 7
A monolithic application was recently migrated to AWS and is now running on a single Amazon EC2 instance. Due to
application limitations, it is not possible to use automatic scaling to scale out the application. The chief technology officer
(CTO) wants an automated solution to restore the EC2 instance in the unlikely event the underlying hardware fails.
What would allow for automatic recovery of the EC2 instance as quickly as possible?
A. Configure an Amazon CloudWatch alarm that triggers the recovery of the EC2 instance if it becomes impaired.
B. Configure an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to trigger an SNS message that alerts the CTO when the EC2 instance is
impaired.
C. Configure AWS CloudTrail to monitor the health of the EC2 instance, and if it becomes impaired, triggered instance
recovery.
D. Configure an Amazon EventBridge event to trigger an AWS Lambda function once an hour that checks the health of
the EC2 instance and triggers instance recovery if the EC2 instance is unhealthy.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
A web application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The application allows users to
create custom reports of historical weather data. Generating a report can take up to 5 minutes. These long-running
requests use many of the available incoming connections, making the system unresponsive to other users.
How can a solutions architect make the system more responsive?
A. Use Amazon SQS with AWS Lambda to generate reports.
B. Increase the idle timeout on the Application Load Balancer to 5 minutes.
C. Update the client-side application code to increase its request timeout to 5 minutes.
D. Publish the reports to Amazon S3 and use Amazon CloudFront for downloading it to the user.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A solutions architect is designing a customer-facing application. The application is expected to have a variable amount
of reads and writes depending on the time of year and clearly defined access patterns throughout the year.
Management requires that database auditing and scaling be managed in the AWS Cloud. The Recovery Point Objective
(RPO) must be less than 5 hours.
Which solutions can accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Use Amazon DynamoDB with auto-scaling. Use on-demand backups and AWS CloudTrail.
B. Use Amazon DynamoDB with auto-scaling. Use on-demand backups and Amazon DynamoDB Streams.
C. Use Amazon Redshift Configure concurrency scaling. Enable audit logging. Perform database snapshots every 4
hours.
D. Use Amazon RDS with Provisioned IOPS. Enable the database auditing parameter. Perform database snapshots
every 5 hours.
E. Use Amazon RDS with auto-scaling. Enable the database auditing parameter. Configure the backup retention period
to at least 1 day.
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
A solutions architect is optimizing a website for an upcoming musical event Videos of the performances will be streamed
in real-time and then will be available on-demand The event is
A. Amazon CloudFront
B. AWS Global Accelerator
C. Amazon Route 53
D. Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/on-demand-streaming-video.html

 

QUESTION 11
A company is running a highly sensitive application on Amazon EC2 backed by an Amazon RDS database. Compliance
regulations mandate that all personally identifiable information (PII) be encrypted at rest. Which solution should a
solutions architect recommend to meet this requirement with the LEAST amount of changes to the infrastructure?
A. Deploy AWS Certificate Manager to generate certificates Use the certificates to encrypt the database volume
B. Deploy AWS CloudHSM. generate encryption keys, and use the customer master key (CMK) to encrypt the database
volumes.
C. Configure SSL encryption using AWS Key Management Service customer master keys (AWS KMS CMKs) to encrypt
database volumes
D. Configure Amazon Elastic Block Store {Amazon EBS) encryption and Amazon RDS encryption with AWS Key
Management Service (AWS KMS) keys to encrypt instance and database volumes.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A company is migrating a NoSQL database cluster to Amazon EC2. The database automatically replicates data to
maintain at least three copies of the dat.I/O throughput of the servers as the highest priority. Which instance type should
a solutions architect recommend for the migration?
A. Storage optimized instances with instance store
B. Burstable general-purpose instances with an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume
C. Memory-optimized instances with Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) optimization enabled D. Compute-optimized instances with Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) optimization enabled
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A company hosts its product information webpages on AWS. The existing solution uses multiple Amazon C2 instances
behind an Application Load Balancer in an Auto Scaling group. The website also uses a custom DNS name and
communicates with HTTPS only using a dedicated SSL certificate. The company is planning a new product launch and
wants to be sure that users from around the world have the best possible experience on the new website. What should
a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?
A. Redesign the application to use Amazon CloudFront.
B. Redesign the application to use AWS Elastic Beanstalk.
C. Redesign the application to use a Network Load Balancer.
D. Redesign the application to use Amazon S3 static website hosting.
Correct Answer: A
What Is Amazon CloudFront?
Amazon CloudFront is a web service that speeds up the distribution of your static and dynamic web content, such as .html,
.css, .js, and image files, to your users. CloudFront delivers your content through a worldwide network of data centers
called edge locations. When a user requests content that you\\’re serving with CloudFront, the user is routed to the edge
location that provides the lowest latency (time delay), so that content is delivered with the best possible performance.
If the content is already in the edge location with the lowest latency, CloudFront delivers it immediately.
If the content is not in that edge location, CloudFront retrieves it from an origin that you\ \’s defined – such as an
Amazon S3 bucket, a MediaPackage channel, or an HTTP server (for example, a web server) that you have identified
as the
source for the definitive version of your content.
As an example, suppose that you\\’re serving an image from a traditional web server, not from CloudFront. For example,
you might serve an image, sunsetphoto.png, using the URL http://example.com/sunsetphoto.png.
Your users can easily navigate to this URL and see the image. But they probably don\\’t know that their request was
routed from one network to another – through the complex collection of interconnected networks that comprise the
internet –
until the image was found.
CloudFront speeds up the distribution of your content by routing each user request through the AWS backbone network
to the edge location that can best serve your content. Typically, this is a CloudFront edge server that provides the
fastest
delivery to the viewer. Using the AWS network dramatically reduces the number of networks that your users\\’ requests
must pass through, which improves performance. Users get lower latency – the time it takes to load the first byte of the
file
– and higher data transfer rates.
You also get increased reliability and availability because copies of your files (also known as objects) are now held (or
cached) in multiple edge locations around the world.
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/Introduction.html

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QUESTION 1
You have private video content in S3 that you want to serve to subscribe to users on the Internet. User IDs, credentials,
and subscriptions are stored in an Amazon RDS database. Which configuration will allow you to securely serve private
content to your users?
Please select:
A. Generate pre-signed URLs for each user as they request access to protected S3 content
B. Create a 1 AM user for each subscribed user and assign the GetObject permission to each 1 AM user
C. Create an S3 bucket policy that limits access to your private content to only your subscribed users\\’credentials
D. Crpafp a Cloud Front Clriein Identity user for venue suhsrrihprl users and assign the GptOhiprt permission to this user
Correct Answer: A
All objects and buckets by default are private. The pre-signed URLs are useful if you want your user/customer to be able to upload a specific object to your bucket but you don\\’t require them to have AWS security credentials or permissions.
When you create a pre-signed URL, you must provide your security credentials, specify a bucket name, an object key,
an HTTP method (PUT for uploading objects), and expiration date and time. The pre-signed URLs are valid only for
the specified duration.
Option B is invalid because this would be too difficult to implement at a user level. Option C is invalid because this is not
possible Option D is invalid because this is used to serve private content via Cloudfront For more information on presigned URLs, please refer to the Link: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/PresienedUrlUploadObiect.htmll
The correct answer is: Generate pre-signed URLs for each user as they request access to protected S3 content Submit
your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

 

QUESTION 2
A Security Administrator is configuring an Amazon S3 bucket and must meet the following security requirements:
Encryption in transit Encryption at rest Logging of all object retrievals in AWS CloudTrail
Which of the following meet these security requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Specify “aws: SecureTransport”: “true” within a condition in the S3 bucket policy.
B. Enable a security group for the S3 bucket that allows port 443, but not port 80.
C. Set up default encryption for the S3 bucket.
D. Enable Amazon CloudWatch Logs for the AWS account.
E. Enable API logging of data events for all S3 objects.
F. Enable S3 object versioning for the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 3
Your company has confidential documents stored in a simple storage service. Due to compliance requirements, you
have to ensure that the data in the S3 bucket is available in a different geographical location. As an architect what is the
change you would make to comply with this requirement?
Please select:
A. Apply Multi-AZ for the underlying 53 bucket
B. Copy the data to an EBS Volume in another Region
C. Create a snapshot of the S3 bucket and copy it to another region
D. Enable Cross-region replication for the S3 bucket
Correct Answer: D
This is mentioned clearly as a use case for S3 cross-region replication You might configure cross-region replication on a
bucket for various reasons, including the following: Compliance requirements – Although, by default Amazon S3 stores
your data across multiple geographically distant Availability Zones, compliance requirements might dictate that you store
data at even further distances. Cross-region
replication allows you to replicate data between distant AWS Regions to satisfy these compliance requirements. Option
A is invalid because Multi-AZ cannot be used to S3 buckets Option B is invalid because copying it to an EBS volume is
not a recommended practice Option C is invalid because creating snapshots is not possible in S3 For more information
on S3 cross-region replication, please visit the following URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/crr.htmll
The correct answer is: Enable Cross-region replication for the S3 bucket Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

 

QUESTION 4
You are planning to use AWS Config to check the configuration of the resources in your AWS account. You are planning
on using an existing 1 AM role and using it for the AWS Config resource. Which of the following is required to ensure the
AWS config service can work as required?
Please select:
A. Ensure that there is a trust policy in place for the AWS Config service within the role
B. Ensure that there is a grant policy in place for the AWS Config service within the role
C. Ensure that there is a user policy in place for the AWS Config service within the role
D. Ensure that there is a group policy in place for the AWS Config service within the role
Correct Answer: A
Options B, C, and D are invalid because you need to ensure a trust policy is in place and not a grant, user, or group policy
or more information on the 1 AM role permissions please visit the below Link:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/iamrole-permissions.htmll The correct answer is: Ensure that
there is a trust policy in place for the AWS Config service within the role Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts


QUESTION 5
A Security Architect is evaluating managed solutions for the storage of encryption keys. The requirements are:
-Storage is accessible by using only VPCs.
-Service has tamper-evident controls.
-Access logging is enabled.
-Storage has high availability.
Which of the following services meets these requirements?
A. Amazon S3 with default encryption
B. AWS CloudHSM
C. Amazon DynamoDB with server-side encryption
D. AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
An auditor needs access to logs that record all API events on AWS. The auditor only needs read-only access to the log
files and does not need access to each AWS account. The company has multiple AWS accounts, and the auditor needs
access to all the logs for all the accounts. What is the best way to configure access for the auditor to view event logs
from all accounts? Choose the correct answer from the options below
Please select:
A. Configure the CloudTrail service in each AWS account and have the logs delivered to an AWS bucket on each
account, while granting the auditor permissions to the bucket via roles in the secondary accounts and a single primary
1 AM account that can assume a read-only role in the secondary AWS accounts.
B. Configure the CloudTrail service in the primary AWS account and configure consolidated billing for all the secondary
accounts. Then grant the auditor access to the S3 bucket that receives the CloudTrail log files.
C. Configure the CloudTrail service in each AWS account and enable consolidated logging inside of CloudTrail.
D. Configure the CloudTrail service in each AWS account and have the logs delivered to a single AWS bucket in the
primary account and grant the auditor access to that single bucket in the primary account.
Correct Answer: D
Given the current requirements, assume the method of “least privilege” security design and only allow the auditor
access to the minimum amount of AWS resources as possible AWS CloudTrail is a service that enables governance,
compliance, operational auditing, and risk auditing of your AWS account. With CloudTrail, you can log, continuously
monitor, and retain events related to API calls across your AWS
infrastructure. CloudTrail provides a history of AWS API calls for your account including API calls made through the
AWS Management Console, AWS SDKs, command-line tools, and other AWS services. This history simplifies security
analysis, resource change tracking, and troubleshooting only be granted access in one location Option Option A is
incorrect since the auditor should B is incorrect since consolidated billing is not a key requirement as part of the
question Option C is incorrect since there is not consolidated logging For more information on Cloudtrail please refer to
the below URL: https://aws.amazon.com/cloudtraiL ( The correct answer is: Configure the CloudTrail service in each
AWS account and have the logs delivered to a single AWS bud in the primary account and grant the auditor access to
that single bucket in the primary account. Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

 

QUESTION 7
A Development team has asked for help configuring the IAM roles and policies in a new AWS account. The team using
the account expects to have hundreds of master keys and therefore does not want to manage access control for
customer master keys (CMKs).
Which of the following will allow the team to manage AWS KMS permissions in IAM without the complexity of editing
individual key policies?
A. The account\\’s CMK key policy must allow the account\\’s IAM roles to perform KMS EnableKey.
B. Newly created CMKs must have a key policy that allows the root principal to perform all actions.
C. Newly created CMKs must allow the root principal to perform the KMS CreateGrant API operation.
D. Newly created CMKs must mirror the IAM policy of the KMS key administrator.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
An organization wants to be alerted when an unauthorized Amazon EC2 instance in its VPC performs a network port
scan against other instances in the VPC. When the Security team performs its own internal tests in a separate account
by using pre-approved third-party scanners from the AWS Marketplace, the Security team also then receives multiple
Amazon GuardDuty events from Amazon CloudWatch alerting on its test activities.
How can the Security team suppress alerts about authorized security tests while still receiving alerts about the
unauthorized activity?
A. Use a filter in AWS CloudTrail to exclude the IP addresses of the Security team\\’s EC2 instances.
B. Add the Elastic IP addresses of the Security team\\’s EC2 instances to a trusted IP list in Amazon GuardDuty.
C. Install the Amazon Inspector agent on the EC2 instances that the Security team uses.
D. Grant the Security team\\’s EC2 instances a role with permissions to call Amazon GuardDuty API operations.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Your IT Security department has mandated that all data on EBS volumes created for underlying EC2 Instances need to
be encrypted. Which of the following can help achieve this? Please select:
A. AWS KMS API
B. AWS Certificate Manager
C. API Gateway with STS
D. 1 AM Access Key
Correct Answer: A
The AWS Documentation mentions the following on AWS KMS AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) is a
managed service that makes it easy for you to create and control the encryption keys used to encrypt your data. AWS
KMS is integrated with other AWS services including Amazon Elastic
Block Store (Amazon EBS), Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3), Amazon Redshift Amazon Elastic
Transcoder, Amazon WorkMail, Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS), and others to make it simple to
encrypt your data with encryption keys that you manage Option B is incorrect – The AWS Certificate manager can be
used to generate SSL certificates that can be used to encrypt traffic transit, but not at rest Option C is incorrect is again
used for issuing tokens when using API gateway for traffic in
transit. Option D is used for secure access to EC2 Instances For more information on AWS KMS, please visit the
following URL: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developereuide/overview.htmll The correct answer is: AWS
KMS API Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

 

QUESTION 10
Your company looks at the gaming domain and hosts several Ec2 Instances as game servers. The servers each
experience user loads in the thousands. There is a concern of DDoS attacks on the EC2 Instances which could cause a
huge revenue loss to the company. Which of the following can help mitigate this security concern and also ensure
minimum downtime for the servers.
Please select:
A. Use VPC Flow logs to monitor the VPC and then implement NACL\\’s to mitigate attacks
B. Use AWS Shield Advanced to protect the EC2 Instances
C. Use AWS Inspector to protect the EC2 Instances
D. Use AWS Trusted Advisor to protect the EC2 Instances
Correct Answer: B
Below is an excerpt from the AWS Documentation on some of the use cases for AWS Shield

 

QUESTION 11
Your company has a set of 1000 EC2 Instances defined in an AWS Account. They want to effectively automate several
administrative tasks on these instances. Which of the following would be an effective way to achieve this? Please
select:
A. Use the AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
B. Use the AWS Systems Manager Run Command
C. Use the AWS Inspector
D. Use AWS Config
Correct Answer: B
The AWS Documentation mentions the following
AWS Systems Manager Run Command lets you remotely and securely manage the configuration of your managed
instances. A managed instance is an Amazon EC2 instance or on-premises machine in your hybrid environment that
has
been configured for Systems Manager. Run Command enables you to automate common administrative tasks and
perform ad hoc configuration changes at scale. You can use Run Command from the AWS console, the AWS
Command Line
Interface, AWS Tools for Windows PowerShell, or the AWS SDKs.
Run Command is offered at no additional cost.
Option A is invalid because this service is used to store parameter Option C is invalid because this service is used to
scan vulnerabilities in an EC2 Instance. Option D is invalid because this service is used to check for configuration
changes
For more information on executing remote commands, please visit the below U
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/systems-manaEer/latest/usereuide/execute-remote-commands.htmll
(
The correct answer is: Use the AWS Systems Manager Run Command Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

 

QUESTION 12
A company wants to have an Intrusion detection system available for their VPC in AWS. They want to have complete
control over the system. Which of the following would be ideal to implement? Please select:
A. Use AWS WAF to catch all intrusions occurring on the systems in the VPC
B. Use a custom solution available in the AWS Marketplace
C. Use VPC Flow logs to detect the issues and flag them accordingly.
D. Use AWS Cloudwatch to monitor all traffic
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A company has hired a third-party security auditor, and the auditor needs read-only access to all AWS resources and
logs of all VPC records and events that have occurred on AWS. How can the company meet the auditor\\’s
requirements without comprising security in the AWS environment? Choose the correct answer from the options below
Please select:
A. Create a role that has the required permissions for the auditor.
B. Create an SNS notification that sends the CloudTrail log files to the auditor\\’s email when CIoudTrail delivers the
logs to S3, but do not allow the auditor access to the AWS environment.
C. The company should contact AWS as part of the shared responsibility model, and AWS will grant required access to
th^ third-party auditor.
D. Enable CloudTrail logging and create a 1 AM user who has read-only permissions to the required AWS resources,
including the bucket containing the CloudTrail logs.
Correct Answer: D
AWS CloudTrail is a service that enables governance, compliance, operational auditing, and risk auditing of your AWS
account. With CloudTrail, you can log, continuously monitor, and retain events related to API calls across your AWS
infrastructure. CloudTrail provides a history of AWS API calls for your account including API calls made through the
AWS Management Console, AWS SDKs, command-line tools, and other AWS services. This history simplifies security
analysis, resource change tracking, and troubleshooting.
Options A and C are incorrect since Cloudtrail needs to be used as part of the solution
Option B is incorrect since the auditor needs to have access to Cloudtrail For more information on cloud trail, please visit
the below URL:
https://aws.amazon.com/cloudtraiL
The correct answer is: Enable CloudTrail logging and create a 1 AM user who has read-only permissions to the
required AWS resources, including the bucket containing the CloudTrail logs.
Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

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